In short no ! The indeterminacy principle (to use an English word closer to Heisenberg's German word ) is a fundamental fact of nature and has norhing to do with interference by the measuring object (although that is also true).

I would love the answer to be yes as My respect for Einstein is greater than for nearly all quantum physicists. I admit that many textbooks written for laymen (the only kind I can understand ) do quote your point but this is a misunderstanding of the indeterminacy problem. Given a hypothetical apparatus that could measure without affecting the particle there indeterminacy principle would still apply.

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