This is essentially Littlewood’s paradox from his 1953 book. In it the underlying problem concerns points, and parenthetically (and in the footnotes) he discusses null sets of measure zero.
He ends up with an enumerable set of points (countably infinite) which has a Lebesgue measure of zero. I think he is just making a technical joke equating zero balls with a measure zero set of points. It is just too technical for most people to get (including me, until recently).
This is essentially Littlewood’s paradox from his 1953 book. In it the underlying problem concerns points, and parenthetically (and in the footnotes) he discusses null sets of measure zero.
He ends up with an enumerable set of points (countably infinite) which has a Lebesgue measure of zero. I think he is just making a technical joke equating zero balls with a measure zero set of points. It is just too technical for most people to get (including me, until recently).
http://lesliegreen.byethost3.com/articles/Littlewood.pdf